SCSA Human Biology Response to infection

15 sample questions with marking guides and sample answers · Avg. score: 65.7%

Q29
2025
NESA
6 marks
Q29

The Varroa mite is an external parasite of European honey bees and is considered to be the most serious pest of honey bees worldwide.

Q29a
2 marks

Why is Varroa mite infection considered to be an infectious disease?

Reveal Answer

Varroa mite is an infectious disease because the mite is a parasitic pathogen that is spread between bees and hives that come into direct contact with the pest.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Provides justification for Varroa mite infection being an infectious disease

2

Provides some relevant information

1

None of the above

0
Q29b
4 marks

In June 2022, the Varroa mite was detected for the first time in Australia at the Port of Newcastle. It then spread to surrounding areas.

Explain TWO procedures that could have been employed to prevent the spread of the Varroa mite in honey bees.

Reveal Answer

Measures used to prevent the spread of Varroa mite include:

  • Early identification of Varroa mite infestation ensures early detection and isolation of infected bee populations. This will stop them from spreading to healthy bees
  • Destroy infected hives. This will kill the mites and infected bees, preventing the spread of the mite to healthy hives.
Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Explains TWO procedures used to prevent the spread of Varroa mite

4
  • Explains ONE procedure
    OR
  • Describes procedures used to prevent the spread of Varroa mite
3
  • Describes ONE procedure
    OR
  • Outlines TWO procedures
2

Provides some relevant information

1

None of the above

0
Q2
2025
SCSA
1 mark
Q2
1 mark

Malaria can be spread when a mosquito carrying the parasite bites a non-infected person. This is an example of

A

transmission by direct contact.

B

vector transmission.

C

infection by droplets.

D

airborne transmission.

Reveal Answer
A

transmission by direct contact.

Direct contact transmission requires physical contact between an infected person and a susceptible person, not an intermediate organism like a mosquito.

B

vector transmission.

Correct Answer

Vector transmission occurs when a living organism, such as a mosquito or tick, carries and transmits an infectious pathogen to another living organism.

C

infection by droplets.

Droplet transmission occurs when respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing carry pathogens directly to a susceptible person, which does not involve a mosquito.

D

airborne transmission.

Airborne transmission involves pathogens traveling through the air over time and distance, rather than being delivered by a biting insect.

Q38
2022
SCSA
20 marks
Q38

Mumps is a disease caused by a RNA virus. Patients with mumps experience a variety of symptoms, which could include painful and swollen glands in the neck. Mumps is transmitted via droplets.

Q38a
8 marks

Identify and describe four external defence mechanisms found in the human body that could help prevent the entry of the mumps pathogen.

Reveal Answer

Any 4 of the following:

  • Skin, which is an impervious barrier to block pathogen entry.
  • Beneficial bacteria on skin destroy the pathogen.
  • Mucus in respiratory tract trap pathogen and push it out of body.
  • Lysozyme enzyme in tears destroy the pathogen
  • Stomach acid destroy the pathogen
  • Tears from the eye flush pathogen from the eye.
  • Eyelashes block entry of pathogen.
Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Any 4 of the following (2 marks each, with 1 mark for naming the mechanism and 1 mark for describing it).

  • Skin, which is an impervious barrier to block pathogen entry.
  • Good/friendly/beneficial bacteria on skin/in respiratory or digestive system destroy the pathogen /inhibits growth of pathogen.
  • Mucus/cilia in respiratory tract trap pathogen and push it out of body.
  • Lysozyme enzyme in tears/saliva/mucous destroy the pathogen
  • Stomach acid destroy the pathogen/inhibits growth of pathogen
  • Tears from the eye flush pathogen from the eye.
  • Eyelashes/blinking action of the eye block entry of pathogen.
8
Q38b
12 marks

Immunisation against mumps can be achieved with vaccination. Distinguish between the terms ‘immunisation’ and ‘vaccination’. Explain how vaccines provide immunity to pathogens and outline four different types of vaccines available.

Reveal Answer

Example answer:

Immunisation involves preparing the immune system to respond to pathogens. Vaccination is the artificial introduction of pathogens or their antigens so that the body can make antibodies to that pathogen.

How vaccines work: Vaccines contain weakened or inactive parts of a particular pathogen. The body manufactures its own antibodies to combat the antigen and also manufacture memory cells, which remain in the body for a long period of time. When infected with pathogen are triggered memory cells produces a faster immune response.

Types of vaccines (any 4 of the following):

  • live attenuated vaccines contain pathogens of reduced virulence/reduced ability to produce disease symptoms
  • inactivated (killed) vaccines contain an inactivated or dead pathogen
  • toxoid vaccines contain the inactive disease causing toxin of a pathogen
  • subunit vaccines are when only part of a pathogen (isolated protein) is administered
  • conjugate vaccines contain pieces of bacterial coat including the carrier protein combined together
  • recombinant vaccines are genetically engineered vaccines where a virus protein is inserted into another virus
Marking Criteria

Distinction between immunisation and vaccination

DescriptorMarks

Describes immunisation as involving preparing the immune system to respond to pathogens or becoming immune to a pathogen

1

Describes vaccination as the artificial introduction of pathogens or their antigens so that the body can make antibodies to that pathogen or cause an immune response

1

How vaccines work

DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 6 of):

  • vaccines contain weakened or inactive parts of a particular pathogen (antigen)
  • body manufactures its own antibodies (to combat the antigen)
  • also manufactures memory cells
  • memory cells remain in the body for a long period of time
  • when exposed/infected with pathogen are triggered memory cells
  • produces a faster/larger immune response
  • patients should now not experience illness/experience less severe illness
6

Types of vaccines

DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 4 of):

  • live attenuated vaccines contain pathogens of reduced virulence/reduced ability to produce disease symptoms
  • inactivated (killed) vaccines contain an inactivated or dead pathogen
  • toxoid vaccines contain the inactive disease causing toxin of a pathogen
  • subunit vaccines are when only part of a pathogen (isolated protein) is administered
  • conjugate vaccines contain pieces of bacterial coat including the carrier protein combined together
  • recombinant vaccines are genetically engineered vaccines where a virus protein is inserted into another virus
4
Q19
2024
VCAA
1 mark
Q19
1 mark

The complement system is a group of proteins that

A

enhance the inflammatory response by attracting phagocytes to the site of infection.

B

remain activated within the circulatory system, ready to encounter foreign antigens.

C

are activated by helper T cells to create a series of events leading to cell death.

D

act as allergens, causing the release of histamine.

Reveal Answer
A

enhance the inflammatory response by attracting phagocytes to the site of infection.

Correct Answer

The complement system consists of proteins that, when activated, enhance the immune response by promoting inflammation, attracting phagocytes, and directly destroying pathogens.

B

remain activated within the circulatory system, ready to encounter foreign antigens.

Complement proteins circulate in the blood in an inactive state and must be triggered by specific pathways (such as the presence of pathogens or antibodies) to become activated.

C

are activated by helper T cells to create a series of events leading to cell death.

The complement system is primarily part of the innate immune system and is activated by antibodies or pathogen surfaces, not by helper T cells.

D

act as allergens, causing the release of histamine.

While some complement byproducts can trigger histamine release to promote inflammation, complement proteins are endogenous immune components, not foreign allergens.

Q20
2020
SCSA
1 mark
Q20
1 mark

Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses because viruses

A

keep changing their external protein coat.

B

are able to disguise themselves in the host cell membrane.

C

are not living cells and thus do not metabolise.

D

can change antibiotics into useful food substances.

Reveal Answer
A

keep changing their external protein coat.

While some viruses mutate and change their surface proteins to evade the immune system, this is not why antibiotics fail. Antibiotics target specific cellular machinery, which viruses lack entirely.

B

are able to disguise themselves in the host cell membrane.

Although some viruses are enveloped in host cell membranes, this is not the reason antibiotics are ineffective. Antibiotics fail because they target bacterial structures, not because the virus is disguised.

C

are not living cells and thus do not metabolise.

Correct Answer

Antibiotics work by disrupting active cellular processes like cell wall synthesis or metabolism. Since viruses are non-living and lack their own metabolic machinery, antibiotics have nothing to target.

D

can change antibiotics into useful food substances.

Viruses do not consume food or possess metabolic enzymes. While some resistant bacteria can degrade antibiotics, viruses are completely incapable of metabolizing them.

Q18
2024
SCSA
1 mark
Q18
1 mark

The antibodies in breast milk provide a child with

A

natural active immunity.

B

artificial passive immunity.

C

natural passive immunity.

D

artificial active immunity.

Reveal Answer
A

natural active immunity.

Natural active immunity occurs when a person's own immune system produces antibodies in response to a natural infection, rather than receiving them from another source.

B

artificial passive immunity.

Artificial passive immunity involves receiving pre-made antibodies through medical intervention, such as an injection of immunoglobulins or antivenom.

C

natural passive immunity.

Correct Answer

Natural passive immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred naturally from one person to another, such as from a mother to her child through breast milk or across the placenta.

D

artificial active immunity.

Artificial active immunity is acquired through vaccination, which medically introduces an antigen to stimulate the body's own immune system to produce antibodies.

Q27
2023
VCAA
1 mark
Q27
1 mark

Bevacizumab is a humanised monoclonal antibody that is used to treat several different cancers. Humanising involves removing part of the constant region of a mouse monoclonal antibody and replacing it with the constant region from a human antibody. Therefore the humanised antibody has both human-derived and mouse-derived components.

An advantage of humanising monoclonal antibodies such as bevacizumab would be to

A

decrease the binding strength between bevacizumab and the cancer cell antigens.

B

reduce the chances of an immune response against bevacizumab.

C

allow greater destruction of cancerous and non-cancerous cells.

D

deliver toxic substances less effectively to the cancer cells.

Reveal Answer
A

decrease the binding strength between bevacizumab and the cancer cell antigens.

The goal of humanising an antibody is not to decrease its binding strength, as strong binding to the target antigen is necessary for its therapeutic effect.

B

reduce the chances of an immune response against bevacizumab.

Correct Answer

By replacing mouse components with human components, the antibody appears less 'foreign' to the patient's immune system, significantly reducing the risk of an adverse immune response against the treatment.

C

allow greater destruction of cancerous and non-cancerous cells.

Monoclonal antibodies are designed to specifically target cancer cells, so increasing the destruction of non-cancerous cells would be a harmful side effect, not an advantage.

D

deliver toxic substances less effectively to the cancer cells.

Delivering toxic substances less effectively would reduce the efficacy of the treatment, which is a disadvantage rather than an advantage.

Q38
2025
SCSA
20 marks
Q38

During the 2024 Olympic Games in Paris, the cleanliness of the River Seine was of concern. High levels of the bacteria Escherichia coli (E. coli) were detected in the river, presenting potential health risks for the athletes competing in the triathlon and open-water swimming events. Several athletes were treated for E. coli infections.

Q38a
6 marks

Contrast three features of bacteria and viruses.

Reveal Answer

Answers could include:

  • Bacteria are unicellular and living, whereas viruses are non-living.
  • Most bacteria are non-pathogenic, but all viruses are pathogenic.
  • Bacteria contain DNA or DNA plasmids, whereas viruses contain DNA or RNA.
  • Furthermore, bacteria are surrounded by a cell membrane or cell wall, whereas viruses are surrounded by a protein coat.
  • Bacteria replicate independently, while viruses replicate within a host cell.
  • Finally, bacteria are visible under a light microscope, whereas viruses are too small to be seen under a light microscope.
Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Any 3 of the following (2 marks each)

  • Bacteria are unicellular and living, whereas viruses are non-living.
  • Most bacteria are non-pathogenic, but all viruses are pathogenic.
  • Bacteria contain DNA or DNA plasmids, whereas viruses contain DNA or RNA.
  • Furthermore, bacteria are surrounded by a cell membrane or cell wall, whereas viruses are surrounded by a protein coat.
  • Bacteria replicate independently, while viruses replicate within a host cell.
  • Finally, bacteria are visible under a light microscope, whereas viruses are too small to be seen under a light microscope.
6
Q38b
10 marks

In addition to severe nausea, the unwell swimmers started feeling cold, shivering uncontrollably and were asking for blankets, despite the outside temperatures being warm.

Name and outline the physiological responses the swimmers' bodies were having to the infection.

Reveal Answer

The physiological response is a fever.

During a fever, pyrogens are released, and the hypothalamus resets the internal thermostat to a higher temperature. This causes shivering of skeletal muscles and vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels, so body temperature will increase. This helps to inhibit the growth or reproduction of pathogens, and macrophage activity is enhanced, which increases phagocytosis. Eventually the fever will break at the crisis point, causing sweating and vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels as the thermostat is reset to normal.

Marking Criteria

Name of physiological response

DescriptorMarks

Identifies the physiological response as a fever

1

Outline the physiological response

DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 9 of): States that pyrogens are released; Describes that the hypothalamus resets the internal thermostat to a higher temperature; Identifies shivering of skeletal muscles; Identifies vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels; States that body temperature will increase; Explains that this inhibits the growth/reproduction of pathogens; Explains that macrophage activity is enhanced/increases phagocytosis; States that eventually the fever will break/reach a crisis point; Identifies that this causes sweating; Identifies vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels; States that the thermostat is reset to normal

9
Q38c
4 marks

After swimming in the River Seine, Australian athletes were prescribed antibiotics to prevent an E. coli infection.

Antibiotics can be classified into two groups based on their mode of action. Name these two groups and outline how they fight bacterial infections.

Reveal Answer

Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria by changing the structure of the cell wall or cell membrane, or by disrupting an essential enzyme.

Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit growth or prevent reproduction by disrupting protein synthesis.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Identifies bactericidal antibiotics

1

Explains that bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria by changing the structure of the cell wall/cell membrane/disrupting an essential enzyme

1

Identifies bacteriostatic antibiotics

1

Explains that bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit growth/prevent reproduction by disrupting protein synthesis

1
Q28
2022
VCAA
1 mark
Q28
1 mark

Hendra virus is a disease that can affect horses and human beings. Available evidence implicates fruit bats as the natural reservoir of the Hendra virus, which is transmitted in bodily fluids.

One practical way of controlling the spread of the Hendra virus to horses is to

A

stop horses from eating fruit.

B

cover the feed and water containers for horses.

C

inject all fruit bats with a vaccine against the virus.

D

minimise the number of fruit trees that bats rely on for food.

Reveal Answer
A

stop horses from eating fruit.

Horses do not typically eat fruit as a primary food source. The virus is transmitted through bat bodily fluids, which are more likely to contaminate exposed feed and water rather than just fruit.

B

cover the feed and water containers for horses.

Correct Answer

Covering feed and water containers is a highly practical and effective method to prevent contamination from the bodily fluids (such as urine or saliva) of infected fruit bats roosting or flying overhead.

C

inject all fruit bats with a vaccine against the virus.

Capturing and vaccinating an entire wild population of fruit bats is logistically impossible and therefore not a practical solution.

D

minimise the number of fruit trees that bats rely on for food.

Destroying the food source of fruit bats would cause severe ecological damage and could actually force bats to relocate closer to human and horse populations in search of food.

Q35
2024
SCSA
16 marks
Q35

Mary Mallon was an asymptomatic carrier of the Salmonella typhi bacteria who caused several outbreaks of typhoid fever in the early 1900s. She became known as 'Typhoid Mary' and the story is a famous example of disease transmission and the need for public health measures.

Mary worked as a cook in New York homes, with many people developing typhoid fever while she was employed. She was never sick with the disease herself but was tested and identified as an asymptomatic carrier of the disease. Individuals become infected with typhoid fever from the ingestion of the Salmonella typhi bacteria. It is believed Mary was responsible for as many as 122 cases of the disease.

Q35d

Bacteria can be treated with either antibiotics or a vaccine.

Q35a
1 mark

Given the evidence outlined above, identify the most likely mode of transmission for the typhoid fever pathogen.

Reveal Answer

Ingestion of contaminated food or drink.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Identifies the ingestion of contaminated food or drink

1
Q35b
3 marks

Identify the location of the most important external body defence mechanism in preventing the spread of Salmonella typhi and outline two ways in which it prevents pathogens entering the internal environment.

Reveal Answer

The stomach.

Defences include (for example): vomiting to expel bacteria, a high acidic environment in the stomach to kill bacteria.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Identifies the stomach, digestive tract, or mouth

1

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • vomiting to expel bacteria
  • high acidic environment in stomach to kill bacteria
  • mucous lining of mouth/digestive tract to trap bacteria
  • lysozyme enzymes in saliva to destroy bacteria
  • beneficial gut bacteria to compete with bacteria
  • constant flushing of materials/peristalsis to prevent stagnation
  • antimicrobial peptides/immunoglobulins found in tract to eliminate bacteria
2
Q35c (i)
2 marks

List two ways in which a fever can help the body fight an invading pathogen.

Reveal Answer

It can inhibit pathogen growth; stimulate tissue repair; enhance white blood cell function; enhance the presentation of antigens to macrophages; and increase the production of antibodies.

(any 2).

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • inhibits pathogen growth/replication/reproduction
  • stimulates tissue repair/increases rate of chemical reactions
  • enhances white blood cell function
  • enhances presentation of antigens to macrophages; increases the production of antibodies
2
Q35c (ii)
4 marks

Explain the physiological mechanisms that produce a fever.

Reveal Answer

Pyrogens are produced, causing the hypothalamus to increase the body's set point temperature. The body generates heat through shivering and decreases heat loss from the skin through vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

States that pyrogens or interleukin-1 are produced

1

Explains that the hypothalamus increases the body's set point temperature

1

Describes that the body generates heat through shivering

1

Describes that the body decreases heat loss from the skin or causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin

1
Q35d (i)
2 marks

Describe the key difference between when a person should be treated with antibiotics and when they should be treated with a vaccine.

Reveal Answer

Antibiotics are taken after a person is already infected, whereas vaccines are administered before infection.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

States that antibiotics are taken after a person is already infected

1

States that vaccines are administered before infection

1
Q35d (ii)
4 marks

Present two separate arguments for whether antibiotics and/or a vaccine is the best method of treating a population exposed to, or at risk of, exposure to a disease such as typhoid fever.

Reveal Answer

Vaccines create memory cells while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines provide long-term immunity and protection.

Additionally, vaccines establish herd immunity while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines help protect the population and those who cannot be vaccinated.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

2 marks for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • vaccines create memory cells while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines provide long-term immunity/protection
  • vaccines establish herd immunity while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines help protect the population/protect those who cannot be vaccinated
  • vaccines reduce severe forms of illness while antibiotics can't, therefore vaccines can reduce complications/likelihood of deaths
  • vaccines require fewer repeat treatments than antibiotics, therefore vaccines are more cost effective
  • antibiotics can treat infected people where a vaccine can't, therefore an antibiotic is the only thing that can help the people who are ill
  • antibiotics can quickly treat illness where it takes months/years for a vaccine to protect a population, therefore an antibiotic can reduce disease spread more quickly
  • antibiotics can be broad spectrum, while a vaccine must be specific, therefore many different antibiotics might work/one specific vaccine must be developed for the disease
4
Q21
2023
VCAA
1 mark
Q21
1 mark

Hay fever (allergic rhinitis) is caused by a range of allergens, including pollen, animal fur, dust mites and moulds entering the body via the eyes, nose or mouth.

The cells that release histamine in the allergic response are

A

mast cells.

B

eosinophils.

C

macrophages.

D

natural killer cells.

Reveal Answer
A

mast cells.

Correct Answer

Mast cells are tissue-resident immune cells that store and release histamine when IgE antibodies on their surface bind to an allergen, triggering the allergic response.

B

eosinophils.

While eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, they primarily release toxic granule proteins and other inflammatory mediators rather than being the main source of histamine.

C

macrophages.

Macrophages are phagocytic cells responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens and cellular debris; they do not release histamine.

D

natural killer cells.

Natural killer cells are cytotoxic lymphocytes that identify and destroy virus-infected or cancerous cells, not cells that release histamine during an allergic response.

Q38
2021
VCAA
1 mark
Q38
1 mark

Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is caused by a virus that does not encode any neuraminidase proteins.

This means that the antiviral drug Relenza would

A

reduce the number of MERS viral particles released from infected cells.

B

be useful to consider as a prevention method against MERS infections.

C

be unlikely to improve the recovery of MERS-infected patients.

D

target other cell surface proteins of MERS-infected cells.

Reveal Answer
A

reduce the number of MERS viral particles released from infected cells.

Relenza works by inhibiting neuraminidase to prevent viral release, but since MERS lacks this protein, the drug would not affect the release of MERS viral particles.

B

be useful to consider as a prevention method against MERS infections.

Because MERS does not have the neuraminidase protein that Relenza targets, the drug would be completely ineffective as a preventative measure.

C

be unlikely to improve the recovery of MERS-infected patients.

Correct Answer

Relenza is a specific neuraminidase inhibitor. Since the MERS virus does not encode neuraminidase, the drug has no target and would not help patients recover.

D

target other cell surface proteins of MERS-infected cells.

Relenza is highly specific to neuraminidase and does not target or bind to other cell surface proteins on infected cells.

Q6
2025
NESA
1 mark
Q6
1 mark

Rabies is a viral disease spread by infected animals. If bitten by an infected animal, a person can be treated by receiving an injection of antibodies.

What type of immunity will this person have following the injection?

A

Innate active

B

Natural passive

C

Acquired active

D

Acquired passive

Reveal Answer
A

Innate active

Innate immunity is the non-specific defense system present from birth, and active immunity requires the body to produce its own antibodies. Receiving an injection of pre-formed antibodies is neither.

B

Natural passive

Natural passive immunity involves the natural transfer of antibodies, such as from a mother to her fetus across the placenta or through breast milk, rather than through a medical injection.

C

Acquired active

Acquired active immunity occurs when the body's immune system is stimulated to produce its own antibodies, typically through vaccination with an antigen, not by receiving pre-formed antibodies.

D

Acquired passive

Correct Answer

Acquired (or artificial) passive immunity occurs when pre-formed antibodies are introduced into the body via medical intervention, such as an injection, providing immediate but temporary protection.

Q24
2020
SCSA
1 mark
Q24
1 mark

A key component of cell-mediated immunity is the body’s production of

A

antigens.

B

antibodies.

C

memory B cells.

D

killer T cells.

Reveal Answer
A

antigens.

Antigens are typically foreign substances (like viral or bacterial proteins) that trigger an immune response, rather than a defensive component produced by the body.

B

antibodies.

Antibodies are the primary component of humoral immunity, not cell-mediated immunity, and are produced by B cells to target extracellular pathogens.

C

memory B cells.

Memory B cells are part of the humoral immune response, which relies on the production of antibodies rather than direct cell-to-cell combat.

D

killer T cells.

Correct Answer

Killer T cells (cytotoxic T cells) are a central component of cell-mediated immunity, functioning by directly attacking and destroying infected or cancerous cells.

Q12
2024
NESA
1 mark
Q12
1 mark

Robert Koch produced a set of criteria to establish whether a particular organism is the cause of a disease in an animal. The criteria are listed below but not in the correct order.

  1. The microorganism must cause disease when introduced to a healthy experimental animal.
  2. The microorganism must be extracted and isolated from the diseased animal and subsequently grown in culture.
  3. The microorganism must be extracted from the diseased experimental animal and demonstrated to be the same microorganism that was isolated from the first diseased animal.
  4. The microorganism must be found in the diseased animal, and not found in healthy animals.

Which of the following correctly shows the order of steps required to determine the cause of a particular disease in an animal?

A

2, 3, 1, 4

B

2, 4, 1, 3

C

4, 2, 1, 3

D

4, 3, 2, 1

Reveal Answer
A

2, 3, 1, 4

This order incorrectly starts with isolating the microorganism before first establishing its presence in diseased animals and absence in healthy ones.

B

2, 4, 1, 3

This sequence is incorrect because it suggests isolating the microorganism before confirming it is exclusively found in diseased animals.

C

4, 2, 1, 3

Correct Answer

This correctly follows Koch's postulates: first identify the pathogen in diseased animals (4), isolate and culture it (2), infect a healthy animal to cause disease (1), and finally reisolate it to confirm identity (3).

D

4, 3, 2, 1

This order is incorrect because it places the re-isolation of the microorganism from the experimental animal before actually infecting the healthy experimental animal.

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