SCSA Biology Heredity

15 sample questions with marking guides and sample answers · Avg. score: 73.7%

Q3
2024
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q3
1 mark

What is a key difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

A

Spermatogenesis produces haploid cells, whereas oogenesis produces diploid cells.

B

Spermatogenesis produces four functional gametes, whereas oogenesis produces one.

C

Spermatogenesis occurs throughout life, whereas oogenesis only occurs after puberty.

D

Spermatogenesis begins with haploid cells, whereas oogenesis begins with diploid cells.

Reveal Answer
A

Spermatogenesis produces haploid cells, whereas oogenesis produces diploid cells.

Both spermatogenesis and oogenesis are forms of meiosis that result in the production of haploid gametes (nn) from diploid germ cells (2n2n).

B

Spermatogenesis produces four functional gametes, whereas oogenesis produces one.

Correct Answer

Spermatogenesis results in four equally sized, functional sperm cells, whereas oogenesis involves unequal cytokinesis, producing one large functional ovum and smaller, non-functional polar bodies.

C

Spermatogenesis occurs throughout life, whereas oogenesis only occurs after puberty.

Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues throughout life, whereas oogenesis begins during fetal development, arrests, and resumes at puberty.

D

Spermatogenesis begins with haploid cells, whereas oogenesis begins with diploid cells.

Both processes begin with diploid stem cells (spermatogonia and oogonia) that differentiate into diploid primary spermatocytes and oocytes before undergoing meiosis.

Q40
2022
VCAA
1 mark
Q40
1 mark

Scientists are investigating the mitochondrial genomes of different Aboriginal Australian populations. A purpose of these investigations is to reveal the pathways of migration of Aboriginal Australians who arrived from Sahul.

Mitochondrial DNA can be used for this purpose because it

A

contains genes that code for enzymes.

B

is always the same in specific populations.

C

is conserved through the maternal lineage.

D

is more structurally stable than nuclear DNA.

Reveal Answer
A

contains genes that code for enzymes.

While mitochondrial DNA does code for enzymes involved in cellular respiration, this functional characteristic does not help scientists trace historical migration pathways.

B

is always the same in specific populations.

Mitochondrial DNA is not identical within populations; in fact, the gradual accumulation of mutations over time creates distinct genetic markers (haplogroups) that scientists use to track migrations.

C

is conserved through the maternal lineage.

Correct Answer

Mitochondrial DNA is inherited exclusively from the mother and does not undergo recombination, allowing scientists to trace unbroken maternal lineages back through time to map historical migrations.

D

is more structurally stable than nuclear DNA.

Mitochondrial DNA actually has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA due to its lack of protective histones and exposure to reactive oxygen species, so it is not more structurally stable.

Q3
2020
QCAA
Paper 2
4 marks
Q3
4 marks

Explain the role of the enzymes helicase and DNA polymerase in the process of DNA replication.

Reveal Answer

Helicase unzips the DNA molecule by breaking the weak hydrogen bonds between the two complementary strands.
This creates a replication fork region so that bases are exposed.
DNA polymerase uses each original strand as a template to produce a copy of the DNA molecule, and adds complementary nucleotides to the exposed bases.
DNA polymerase also proofreads the newly synthesised strand.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

States helicase’s role in unzipping DNA

1

States helicase’s role in exposing bases

1

States DNA polymerase’s role in adding complementary nucleotides to the exposed bases

1

States another role of helicase, polymerase, or suitable feature of the process

1
Q11
2020
SCSA
1 mark
Q11
1 mark

A mRNA molecule has the following sequence – CUUUCUGAAAUU.
The number of codons in this molecule is

A
B
C
D
Reveal Answer
A

This is incorrect because the sequence clearly contains nucleotides, meaning it must contain codons.

B

This is incorrect. Three is the number of nucleotides that make up a single codon, not the total number of codons in the given sequence.

C
Correct Answer

This is correct. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides. Since the given mRNA molecule has 12 nucleotides, it contains 12÷3=412 \div 3 = 4 codons.

D

This is incorrect. Twelve is the total number of individual nucleotides in the sequence, not the number of three-nucleotide codons.

Q13
2022
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q13
1 mark

An error during DNA replication resulted in the following change to mRNA transcripts.

  
mRNA beforeAUGAAGUUUGGCAUC ... (continued)
mRNA afterAUGAAGUUUGCAUCG ... (continued)

The DNA replication error most likely involved

A

deletion of cytosine.

B

insertion of guanine.

C

substitution of uracil with guanine.

D

substitution of guanine with cytosine.

Reveal Answer
A

deletion of cytosine.

Correct Answer

Comparing the sequences reveals that a guanine (G) is missing in the "after" mRNA (changing ...GGC... to ...GCA...), which causes a frameshift. Since mRNA guanine is transcribed from cytosine on the DNA template strand, a deletion of cytosine in the DNA would result in this specific error.

B

insertion of guanine.

An insertion would add a base to the sequence. The comparison shows that a nucleotide has been removed (deleted) rather than added, as the sequence has shifted to the left.

C

substitution of uracil with guanine.

A substitution replaces one nucleotide with another without changing the length of the sequence. The observed change is a frameshift mutation caused by a deletion, which alters the reading frame of all subsequent codons.

D

substitution of guanine with cytosine.

This describes a substitution mutation. However, the sequences show that a base was removed entirely, causing the downstream sequence to shift, which characterizes a deletion mutation rather than a substitution.

Q17
2023
VCAA
1 mark
Q17
1 mark

The enzymes involved in glucose metabolism are what type of biological molecule?

A

carbohydrates

B

nucleotides

C

proteins

D

lipids

Reveal Answer
A

carbohydrates

Carbohydrates, such as glucose, are the substrates being broken down during metabolism, not the catalysts driving the reactions.

B

nucleotides

Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA or act as energy carriers like ATP, rather than functioning as metabolic enzymes.

C

proteins

Correct Answer

Almost all enzymes, including those that catalyze the reactions of glucose metabolism, are proteins composed of folded chains of amino acids.

D

lipids

Lipids are primarily used for long-term energy storage and forming cell membranes, not for catalyzing biochemical reactions.

Q5
2020
SCSA
1 mark
Q5
1 mark

Fur colour in rabbits is determined by four alleles of the CC gene. Himalayan rabbits are homozygous for the chc^h allele at this gene. This allele produces an enzyme that results in black fur. However, this enzyme is inactivated if the skin temperature exceeds 20 °C, resulting in white fur. Fur colour in Himalayan rabbits is an example of

A

a polygenic trait.

B

a recessive mutation.

C

an interaction between two genes.

D

a gene-environment interaction.

Reveal Answer
A

a polygenic trait.

A polygenic trait is controlled by multiple genes, but the prompt specifies that this trait is determined by alleles of a single gene (the CC gene).

B

a recessive mutation.

While the chc^h allele may be recessive to other alleles, the temperature-dependent change in fur color specifically demonstrates how the environment affects the expression of the trait, not its dominance or recessiveness.

C

an interaction between two genes.

The scenario describes the effect of temperature on a single gene's product, not an interaction between two different genes (epistasis).

D

a gene-environment interaction.

Correct Answer

This is a classic example of a gene-environment interaction, as the resulting phenotype (fur color) depends on both the rabbit's genotype (the chc^h allele) and an environmental factor (temperature).

Q5
2025
SCSA
1 mark
Q5
1 mark

Ionising radiation like X-rays causes mutations by

A

inhibiting DNA polymerase activity.

B

promoting DNA base mispairing.

C

inserting extra nucleotides into a DNA strand.

D

causing breaks in DNA strands.

Reveal Answer
A

inhibiting DNA polymerase activity.

Ionising radiation damages the DNA structure directly rather than targeting or inhibiting the enzymes involved in DNA replication, such as DNA polymerase.

B

promoting DNA base mispairing.

While chemical mutagens or base analogs typically promote base mispairing, ionising radiation primarily causes severe structural damage to the DNA backbone.

C

inserting extra nucleotides into a DNA strand.

Intercalating agents (like ethidium bromide), not ionising radiation, cause mutations by inserting themselves between DNA bases, which can lead to the insertion or deletion of nucleotides.

D

causing breaks in DNA strands.

Correct Answer

Ionising radiation, such as X-rays, carries enough high-energy to break the phosphodiester bonds in the DNA backbone, leading to single- or double-strand breaks that cause mutations.

Q18
2025
SCSA
1 mark
Q18
1 mark

Random assortment of chromosomes occurs during

A

fertilisation.

B

meiosis I.

C

meiosis II.

D

mitosis.

Reveal Answer
A

fertilisation.

Incorrect. Fertilisation involves the random fusion of two haploid gametes to form a diploid zygote, rather than the random assortment of chromosomes during cell division.

B

meiosis I.

Correct Answer

Correct. Random (independent) assortment occurs during metaphase I of meiosis I, when homologous chromosome pairs align randomly at the cell equator before separating into daughter cells.

C

meiosis II.

Incorrect. Meiosis II involves the separation of sister chromatids, not the random assortment of homologous chromosome pairs, which already took place during meiosis I.

D

mitosis.

Incorrect. Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells and does not involve the pairing or random assortment of homologous chromosomes.

Q11
2024
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q11
1 mark

Which mode of inheritance leads to continuous variation in the phenotypes of a population due to the cumulative effect of multiple genes?

A

codominance

B

polygenic inheritance

C

incomplete dominance

D

multiple allele inheritance

Reveal Answer
A

codominance

Codominance occurs when both alleles of a single gene are fully expressed in the heterozygote (e.g., AB blood type), resulting in discrete phenotypes rather than continuous variation.

B

polygenic inheritance

Correct Answer

Polygenic inheritance involves multiple genes contributing additively to a single trait, creating a continuous spectrum of phenotypes (such as height or skin color) across a population.

C

incomplete dominance

Incomplete dominance describes a single-gene interaction where the heterozygote is intermediate between homozygotes, but it does not produce the broad continuous variation caused by multiple genes.

D

multiple allele inheritance

Multiple allele inheritance refers to the presence of more than two alleles for a single gene within a population (e.g., ABO blood groups), which typically results in distinct categories rather than continuous variation.

Q9
2025
SCSA
1 mark
Q9
1 mark

DNA profiling is used to

A

measure gene expression.

B

quantify gene flow.

C

identify individuals and species.

D

create transgenic organisms.

Reveal Answer
A

measure gene expression.

Incorrect. Measuring gene expression involves analyzing RNA levels using techniques like RT-qPCR or RNA sequencing, whereas DNA profiling looks at the DNA sequence itself.

B

quantify gene flow.

Incorrect. While genetic markers can be used in population genetics, DNA profiling specifically focuses on identifying unique genetic patterns of individuals rather than tracking the movement of alleles between populations.

C

identify individuals and species.

Correct Answer

Correct. DNA profiling, also known as DNA fingerprinting, analyzes highly variable regions of the genome to uniquely identify individuals or distinguish between species.

D

create transgenic organisms.

Incorrect. Creating transgenic organisms requires recombinant DNA technology and genetic engineering to insert foreign genes, which is entirely different from analyzing existing DNA profiles.

Q17
2024
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q17
1 mark

Which genetic tool is not required to make recombinant DNA?

A

DNA ligase

B

plasmid vectors

C

restriction enzymes

D

transcription factors

Reveal Answer
A

DNA ligase

DNA ligase is essential for recombinant DNA technology as it acts as molecular glue to join the sugar-phosphate backbones of the DNA fragment and the vector.

B

plasmid vectors

Plasmid vectors are required to act as vehicles that carry the foreign DNA into a host cell for replication and maintenance.

C

restriction enzymes

Restriction enzymes are necessary to cut both the vector and the source DNA at specific sequences, creating compatible ends for insertion.

D

transcription factors

Correct Answer

Transcription factors are proteins that regulate gene expression (transcription) inside a cell, but they are not tools used to construct or assemble recombinant DNA molecules.

Q19
2021
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q19
1 mark

What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?

A

breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary bases of DNA together

B

adding complementary nucleotide bases to the exposed DNA strands

C

sealing the sequence of DNA into two continuous double strands

D

joining RNA primers to the lagging strand of DNA

Reveal Answer
A

breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary bases of DNA together

This describes the function of DNA helicase, which unwinds the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs.

B

adding complementary nucleotide bases to the exposed DNA strands

Correct Answer

DNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands by adding nucleotides that are complementary to the template strand.

C

sealing the sequence of DNA into two continuous double strands

This describes the function of DNA ligase, which joins DNA fragments (such as Okazaki fragments) together to form a continuous strand.

D

joining RNA primers to the lagging strand of DNA

RNA primers are synthesized by the enzyme primase, not DNA polymerase, to initiate DNA synthesis.

Q10
2024
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q10
1 mark

A key function of histones is to

A

add nucleotides to a growing DNA strand.

B

bind to specific sections of DNA to initiate replication.

C

allow DNA to tightly condense so it fits into the nucleus.

D

join amino acids to form a polypeptide chain during translation.

Reveal Answer
A

add nucleotides to a growing DNA strand.

This describes the function of DNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands, not histones.

B

bind to specific sections of DNA to initiate replication.

Initiating replication involves specific initiator proteins and the origin recognition complex, whereas histones are primarily structural proteins involved in packaging.

C

allow DNA to tightly condense so it fits into the nucleus.

Correct Answer

Histones act as spools around which DNA winds to form nucleosomes, allowing the long DNA molecules to be compacted into chromatin and fit within the nucleus.

D

join amino acids to form a polypeptide chain during translation.

Joining amino acids to form polypeptides is the function of ribosomes during translation, not histones.

Q12
2020
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q12
1 mark

In the structure of DNA, adenine pairs with which other base?

A

uracil

B

guanine

C

cytosine

D

thymine

Reveal Answer
A

uracil

Uracil is found in RNA, where it pairs with adenine. In DNA, thymine replaces uracil.

B

guanine

Guanine pairs with cytosine via three hydrogen bonds, not with adenine.

C

cytosine

Cytosine pairs with guanine via three hydrogen bonds, not with adenine.

D

thymine

Correct Answer

In the DNA double helix, adenine (A) always pairs with thymine (T) via two hydrogen bonds, consistent with Chargaff's rules.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many SCSA Biology questions cover Heredity?
AusGrader has 353 SCSA Biology questions on Heredity, all with instant AI grading and detailed marking feedback.

Ready to practise SCSA Biology?

Get instant AI feedback on past exam questions, aligned to the syllabus

Start Practising Free