QCAA Biology Genetics and heredity

15 sample questions with marking guides and sample answers · Avg. score: 73.5%

Q40
2022
VCAA
1 mark
Q40
1 mark

Scientists are investigating the mitochondrial genomes of different Aboriginal Australian populations. A purpose of these investigations is to reveal the pathways of migration of Aboriginal Australians who arrived from Sahul.

Mitochondrial DNA can be used for this purpose because it

A

contains genes that code for enzymes.

B

is always the same in specific populations.

C

is conserved through the maternal lineage.

D

is more structurally stable than nuclear DNA.

Reveal Answer
A

contains genes that code for enzymes.

While mitochondrial DNA does code for enzymes involved in cellular respiration, this functional characteristic does not help scientists trace historical migration pathways.

B

is always the same in specific populations.

Mitochondrial DNA is not identical within populations; in fact, the gradual accumulation of mutations over time creates distinct genetic markers (haplogroups) that scientists use to track migrations.

C

is conserved through the maternal lineage.

Correct Answer

Mitochondrial DNA is inherited exclusively from the mother and does not undergo recombination, allowing scientists to trace unbroken maternal lineages back through time to map historical migrations.

D

is more structurally stable than nuclear DNA.

Mitochondrial DNA actually has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA due to its lack of protective histones and exposure to reactive oxygen species, so it is not more structurally stable.

Q3
2020
QCAA
Paper 2
4 marks
Q3
4 marks

Explain the role of the enzymes helicase and DNA polymerase in the process of DNA replication.

Reveal Answer

Helicase unzips the DNA molecule by breaking the weak hydrogen bonds between the two complementary strands.
This creates a replication fork region so that bases are exposed.
DNA polymerase uses each original strand as a template to produce a copy of the DNA molecule, and adds complementary nucleotides to the exposed bases.
DNA polymerase also proofreads the newly synthesised strand.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

States helicase’s role in unzipping DNA

1

States helicase’s role in exposing bases

1

States DNA polymerase’s role in adding complementary nucleotides to the exposed bases

1

States another role of helicase, polymerase, or suitable feature of the process

1
Q5
2025
SCSA
1 mark
Q5
1 mark

Ionising radiation like X-rays causes mutations by

A

inhibiting DNA polymerase activity.

B

promoting DNA base mispairing.

C

inserting extra nucleotides into a DNA strand.

D

causing breaks in DNA strands.

Reveal Answer
A

inhibiting DNA polymerase activity.

Ionising radiation damages the DNA structure directly rather than targeting or inhibiting the enzymes involved in DNA replication, such as DNA polymerase.

B

promoting DNA base mispairing.

While chemical mutagens or base analogs typically promote base mispairing, ionising radiation primarily causes severe structural damage to the DNA backbone.

C

inserting extra nucleotides into a DNA strand.

Intercalating agents (like ethidium bromide), not ionising radiation, cause mutations by inserting themselves between DNA bases, which can lead to the insertion or deletion of nucleotides.

D

causing breaks in DNA strands.

Correct Answer

Ionising radiation, such as X-rays, carries enough high-energy to break the phosphodiester bonds in the DNA backbone, leading to single- or double-strand breaks that cause mutations.

Q16
2022
SCSA
1 mark
Q16
1 mark

The haploid number of chromosomes in an orangutan is 24. How many chromosomes will be present in the sperm cell of an orangutan?

A

12

B

24

C

48

D

60

Reveal Answer
A

12

Incorrect. This is half of the haploid number, but gametes contain the full haploid set of chromosomes, not half of it.

B

24

Correct Answer

Correct. Sperm cells are gametes, which are haploid cells, meaning they contain the exact haploid number of chromosomes (n=24n=24).

C

48

Incorrect. This is the diploid number (2n=482n=48), which represents the chromosome count in somatic (body) cells, not reproductive sperm cells.

D

60

Incorrect. This is an arbitrary number that does not relate to the haploid (n=24n=24) or diploid (2n=482n=48) chromosome counts of an orangutan.

Q3
2024
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q3
1 mark

What is a key difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

A

Spermatogenesis produces haploid cells, whereas oogenesis produces diploid cells.

B

Spermatogenesis produces four functional gametes, whereas oogenesis produces one.

C

Spermatogenesis occurs throughout life, whereas oogenesis only occurs after puberty.

D

Spermatogenesis begins with haploid cells, whereas oogenesis begins with diploid cells.

Reveal Answer
A

Spermatogenesis produces haploid cells, whereas oogenesis produces diploid cells.

Both spermatogenesis and oogenesis are forms of meiosis that result in the production of haploid gametes (nn) from diploid germ cells (2n2n).

B

Spermatogenesis produces four functional gametes, whereas oogenesis produces one.

Correct Answer

Spermatogenesis results in four equally sized, functional sperm cells, whereas oogenesis involves unequal cytokinesis, producing one large functional ovum and smaller, non-functional polar bodies.

C

Spermatogenesis occurs throughout life, whereas oogenesis only occurs after puberty.

Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues throughout life, whereas oogenesis begins during fetal development, arrests, and resumes at puberty.

D

Spermatogenesis begins with haploid cells, whereas oogenesis begins with diploid cells.

Both processes begin with diploid stem cells (spermatogonia and oogonia) that differentiate into diploid primary spermatocytes and oocytes before undergoing meiosis.

Q29
2022
SCSA
1 mark
Q29
1 mark

A dog has an extra chromosome in all its cells. The mutation that caused this most likely occurred in a

A

cell undergoing meiosis in the dog.

B

cell undergoing mitosis in the dog.

C

germ cell in one of the dog's parents.

D

somatic cell in one of the dog's parents.

Reveal Answer
A

cell undergoing meiosis in the dog.

A mutation occurring during meiosis in the dog would affect its gametes and potential offspring, not the dog's own body cells.

B

cell undergoing mitosis in the dog.

A mutation during mitosis in the dog would only affect the specific lineage of cells descended from that mutated cell, resulting in a mosaic rather than affecting all cells.

C

germ cell in one of the dog's parents.

Correct Answer

For every cell in the dog's body to have an extra chromosome, the nondisjunction event must have occurred in a parent's germ cell, creating a gamete that passed the extra chromosome to the initial zygote.

D

somatic cell in one of the dog's parents.

Mutations in a parent's somatic (body) cells are not passed down to their offspring; only mutations in germ cells are inherited.

Q17
2020
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q17
1 mark

The table identifies the condition associated with a variety of ploidy changes.

Chromosome number ploidyCondition name
Monosomy 5Cri du chat syndrome
Trisomy 21Down syndrome
Trisomy 23Klinefelter syndrome
Monosomy 23Turner syndrome

For a person with XXY sex chromosomes, which condition would they have?

A

Cri du chat syndrome

B

Down syndrome

C

Klinefelter syndrome

D

Turner syndrome

Reveal Answer
A

Cri du chat syndrome

Cri du chat syndrome is listed in the table as being caused by Monosomy 5, which involves chromosome 5 rather than the sex chromosomes.

B

Down syndrome

Down syndrome is identified in the table as Trisomy 21, which involves an extra copy of chromosome 21, not the sex chromosomes.

C

Klinefelter syndrome

Correct Answer

The XXY genotype consists of three sex chromosomes (pair 23), representing a trisomy. The table identifies Trisomy 23 as Klinefelter syndrome.

D

Turner syndrome

Turner syndrome is listed as Monosomy 23, which implies a missing sex chromosome (genotype X0), whereas XXY indicates an extra chromosome.

Q11
2020
SCSA
1 mark
Q11
1 mark

A mRNA molecule has the following sequence – CUUUCUGAAAUU.
The number of codons in this molecule is

A
B
C
D
Reveal Answer
A

This is incorrect because the sequence clearly contains nucleotides, meaning it must contain codons.

B

This is incorrect. Three is the number of nucleotides that make up a single codon, not the total number of codons in the given sequence.

C
Correct Answer

This is correct. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides. Since the given mRNA molecule has 12 nucleotides, it contains 12÷3=412 \div 3 = 4 codons.

D

This is incorrect. Twelve is the total number of individual nucleotides in the sequence, not the number of three-nucleotide codons.

Q5
2020
SCSA
1 mark
Q5
1 mark

Fur colour in rabbits is determined by four alleles of the CC gene. Himalayan rabbits are homozygous for the chc^h allele at this gene. This allele produces an enzyme that results in black fur. However, this enzyme is inactivated if the skin temperature exceeds 20 °C, resulting in white fur. Fur colour in Himalayan rabbits is an example of

A

a polygenic trait.

B

a recessive mutation.

C

an interaction between two genes.

D

a gene-environment interaction.

Reveal Answer
A

a polygenic trait.

A polygenic trait is controlled by multiple genes, but the prompt specifies that this trait is determined by alleles of a single gene (the CC gene).

B

a recessive mutation.

While the chc^h allele may be recessive to other alleles, the temperature-dependent change in fur color specifically demonstrates how the environment affects the expression of the trait, not its dominance or recessiveness.

C

an interaction between two genes.

The scenario describes the effect of temperature on a single gene's product, not an interaction between two different genes (epistasis).

D

a gene-environment interaction.

Correct Answer

This is a classic example of a gene-environment interaction, as the resulting phenotype (fur color) depends on both the rabbit's genotype (the chc^h allele) and an environmental factor (temperature).

Q27
2021
VCAA
1 mark
Q27
1 mark

The BMP4 gene in African cichlid fish is responsible for

A

the great range of colours and scale patterns observed in adult fish of different species.

B

the amount of bone laid down in the jaws of cichlid fish embryos.

C

convergent evolution between different species of cichlids.

D

sex determination in cichlid fish living in African lakes.

Reveal Answer
A

the great range of colours and scale patterns observed in adult fish of different species.

BMP4 stands for Bone Morphogenetic Protein 4 and is involved in skeletal development, not the pigmentation or scale patterns of the fish.

B

the amount of bone laid down in the jaws of cichlid fish embryos.

Correct Answer

BMP4 regulates bone formation. In African cichlids, variations in its expression determine the amount of bone laid down in the jaws of embryos, driving their diverse jaw morphologies adapted to different diets.

C

convergent evolution between different species of cichlids.

Convergent evolution is a broad evolutionary pattern driven by similar environmental selective pressures, not a process directly controlled by a single gene like BMP4.

D

sex determination in cichlid fish living in African lakes.

Sex determination in cichlids is controlled by a complex mix of other genetic and environmental factors, whereas BMP4 is specifically dedicated to bone and tissue development.

Q11
2024
QCAA
Paper 1
1 mark
Q11
1 mark

Which mode of inheritance leads to continuous variation in the phenotypes of a population due to the cumulative effect of multiple genes?

A

codominance

B

polygenic inheritance

C

incomplete dominance

D

multiple allele inheritance

Reveal Answer
A

codominance

Codominance occurs when both alleles of a single gene are fully expressed in the heterozygote (e.g., AB blood type), resulting in discrete phenotypes rather than continuous variation.

B

polygenic inheritance

Correct Answer

Polygenic inheritance involves multiple genes contributing additively to a single trait, creating a continuous spectrum of phenotypes (such as height or skin color) across a population.

C

incomplete dominance

Incomplete dominance describes a single-gene interaction where the heterozygote is intermediate between homozygotes, but it does not produce the broad continuous variation caused by multiple genes.

D

multiple allele inheritance

Multiple allele inheritance refers to the presence of more than two alleles for a single gene within a population (e.g., ABO blood groups), which typically results in distinct categories rather than continuous variation.

Q28
2021
SCSA
1 mark
Q28
1 mark

Alpha and Beta Thalassemia have similarities and differences in their inheritance patterns. Which of the following is correct?

A

Both are autosomal dominant conditions controlled on multiple gene loci.

B

Alpha Thalassemia is fatal for homozygote individuals while Beta Thalassemia is not.

C

Both are autosomal recessive conditions that result in affected individuals having four defective globin genes.

D

Beta Thalassemia is fatal for heterozygote individuals while Alpha Thalassemia is not.

Reveal Answer
A

Both are autosomal dominant conditions controlled on multiple gene loci.

This is incorrect because both Alpha and Beta Thalassemia are inherited as autosomal recessive conditions, not autosomal dominant.

B

Alpha Thalassemia is fatal for homozygote individuals while Beta Thalassemia is not.

Correct Answer

This is correct. Homozygous Alpha Thalassemia (loss of all four alpha genes) causes hydrops fetalis, which is typically fatal in utero. Homozygous Beta Thalassemia is not fatal in utero because fetal hemoglobin relies on gamma chains rather than beta chains.

C

Both are autosomal recessive conditions that result in affected individuals having four defective globin genes.

This is incorrect because while Alpha Thalassemia involves four genes (two loci on chromosome 16), Beta Thalassemia involves only two genes (one locus on chromosome 11).

D

Beta Thalassemia is fatal for heterozygote individuals while Alpha Thalassemia is not.

This is incorrect. Heterozygotes for Beta Thalassemia (Beta Thalassemia Minor) are typically asymptomatic or experience only mild anemia, making it non-fatal.

Q6
2020
VCAA
4 marks
Q6

Gene cloning has allowed the pharmaceutical industry to manufacture large quantities of proteins at a low cost. These proteins are produced by bacteria and are used to treat certain health conditions.

In the past, before the development of DNA technology, proteins for treating certain health conditions could be obtained only from animals, such as cattle and pigs, or from human corpses.

Q6a
2 marks

State two advantages of using gene cloning to manufacture pharmaceutical proteins rather than sourcing the proteins from animals or human corpses.

Reveal Answer
Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • constant and reliable supply
  • purer or more effective product
  • larger quantities
  • less chance of side effects such as allergies
  • more appealing to patient rather than using animals.
2
Q6b
2 marks

Outline one ethical issue associated with the use of gene cloning in the manufacture of a pharmaceutical product.

Reveal Answer

For example: Changing a species' DNA may result in unforeseen consequences.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • Who has the legal ownership and how will the product be made available for all people in the world?
  • Changing a species’ DNA may result in unforeseen consequences.
  • Concern that the pharmaceutical product may contain bacteria that will cause disease.
  • Not natural and therefore may be against religious/moral views.
2
Q9
2025
SCSA
1 mark
Q9
1 mark

DNA profiling is used to

A

measure gene expression.

B

quantify gene flow.

C

identify individuals and species.

D

create transgenic organisms.

Reveal Answer
A

measure gene expression.

Incorrect. Measuring gene expression involves analyzing RNA levels using techniques like RT-qPCR or RNA sequencing, whereas DNA profiling looks at the DNA sequence itself.

B

quantify gene flow.

Incorrect. While genetic markers can be used in population genetics, DNA profiling specifically focuses on identifying unique genetic patterns of individuals rather than tracking the movement of alleles between populations.

C

identify individuals and species.

Correct Answer

Correct. DNA profiling, also known as DNA fingerprinting, analyzes highly variable regions of the genome to uniquely identify individuals or distinguish between species.

D

create transgenic organisms.

Incorrect. Creating transgenic organisms requires recombinant DNA technology and genetic engineering to insert foreign genes, which is entirely different from analyzing existing DNA profiles.

Q6
2024
VCAA
1 mark
Q6
1 mark

The function of the CRISPR-Cas9 system in the bacterium S. pyogenes is to

A

become a recombinant plasmid to produce human insulin.

B

respond to specific viruses if they reinfect the cell.

C

act as a promoter for transcription.

D

increase antibiotic resistance.

Reveal Answer
A

become a recombinant plasmid to produce human insulin.

While scientists use recombinant plasmids in biotechnology to produce human insulin, this is an artificial application. The natural function of CRISPR-Cas9 is immune defense, not acting as a plasmid.

B

respond to specific viruses if they reinfect the cell.

Correct Answer

In nature, CRISPR-Cas9 acts as an adaptive immune system in bacteria, storing viral DNA sequences to recognize and cleave the DNA of specific bacteriophages upon reinfection.

C

act as a promoter for transcription.

A promoter is a DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription. CRISPR-Cas9 is an RNA-guided endonuclease complex that cuts DNA, not a transcriptional promoter.

D

increase antibiotic resistance.

Antibiotic resistance is typically conferred by specific genes that degrade or efflux antibiotics. CRISPR-Cas9 defends against foreign genetic material like viruses, not chemical antibiotics.

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