NESA Biology Responses to Pathogens

12 sample questions with marking guides and sample answers · Avg. score: 69.2%

Q1
2023
SCSA
1 mark
Q1
1 mark

Phytophthora is a pathogen that infects

A

Australian native plants only.

B

Australian native animals only.

C

a broad range of plants.

D

a broad range of animals.

Reveal Answer
A

Australian native plants only.

While Phytophthora is a major threat to many Australian native plants, it is not restricted to them and infects plants worldwide.

B

Australian native animals only.

Phytophthora is a plant pathogen (a type of water mold) and does not infect animals.

C

a broad range of plants.

Correct Answer

Phytophthora is a genus of destructive water molds that are known to infect a wide variety of plant species globally, causing diseases like root rot and potato blight.

D

a broad range of animals.

Phytophthora specifically targets and infects plants, not animals.

Q13
2023
SCSA
1 mark
Q13
1 mark

A blood sample from an area of the body exhibiting inflammation would be

A

high in complement proteins, high in histamine, low in heparin and low in tissue
fluid.

B

low in complement proteins, low in histamine, low in heparin and high in tissue
fluid.

C

low in complement proteins, high in histamine, high in heparin and low in tissue
fluid.

D

high in complement proteins, high in histamine, high in heparin and high in tissue
fluid.

Reveal Answer
A

high in complement proteins, high in histamine, low in heparin and low in tissue
fluid.

While complement proteins and histamine are elevated during inflammation, heparin and tissue fluid levels would also be high, not low.

B

low in complement proteins, low in histamine, low in heparin and high in tissue
fluid.

Inflammation triggers the release of complement proteins, histamine, and heparin to fight infection and increase blood flow, so these would all be high, not low.

C

low in complement proteins, high in histamine, high in heparin and low in tissue
fluid.

Complement proteins are actively recruited during inflammation, and tissue fluid increases due to vascular permeability (causing swelling), so both would be high.

D

high in complement proteins, high in histamine, high in heparin and high in tissue
fluid.

Correct Answer

During inflammation, mast cells release histamine (causing vasodilation) and heparin (preventing clotting), complement proteins are activated to destroy pathogens, and increased capillary permeability leads to high tissue fluid (edema).

Q13
2024
NESA
1 mark
Q13
1 mark

Which of the following identifies plant responses to pathogens?

A

Increased phagocytosis and programmed cell death

B

Increased number of stomata and programmed cell death

C

Production of antihistamines and increased thickness of cell walls

D

Production of antimicrobial substances and increased thickness of cell walls

Reveal Answer
A

Increased phagocytosis and programmed cell death

Plants do not perform phagocytosis because their rigid cell walls prevent the engulfment of particles, although they do utilize programmed cell death (the hypersensitive response).

B

Increased number of stomata and programmed cell death

Increasing the number of stomata would actually provide more natural openings for pathogens to enter the plant, making it more vulnerable rather than protecting it.

C

Production of antihistamines and increased thickness of cell walls

Histamines and antihistamines are components of the animal immune system's inflammatory response, not plant defense mechanisms.

D

Production of antimicrobial substances and increased thickness of cell walls

Correct Answer

Plants defend against pathogens chemically by producing antimicrobial compounds (like phytoalexins) and physically by thickening their cell walls with callose and lignin to block pathogen spread.

Q22
2022
SCSA
1 mark
Q22
1 mark

Fever plays an important role in humans' defence against disease. This role is best described as

A

specific immunity, which destroys invading pathogens directly.

B

non-specific immunity, which helps to speed up the immune response.

C

specific immunity, which activates the killer T cells and helper T cells.

D

non-specific immunity, which helps to neutralise pathogens at the entry site.

Reveal Answer
A

specific immunity, which destroys invading pathogens directly.

Fever is a component of the innate, non-specific immune system, not specific immunity, and it does not destroy pathogens directly.

B

non-specific immunity, which helps to speed up the immune response.

Correct Answer

Fever is a systemic, non-specific immune response that raises body temperature to accelerate metabolic processes, thereby speeding up the overall immune response and tissue repair.

C

specific immunity, which activates the killer T cells and helper T cells.

While fever can enhance the activity of immune cells, it is classified as a non-specific immune response, not specific immunity.

D

non-specific immunity, which helps to neutralise pathogens at the entry site.

Fever is a systemic response that affects the whole body, rather than acting locally to neutralize pathogens at their specific site of entry.

Q20
2022
VCAA
1 mark
Q20
1 mark

During their lifetime, plants are exposed to both pathogenic and beneficial microorganisms. Some plants provide shelter within their bodies for beneficial microorganisms. These beneficial microorganisms help plants that have not been genetically modified to resist pathogenic microorganisms.

The beneficial microorganisms may be providing protection by

A

synthesising toxins that kill pathogenic microorganisms.

B

providing a permeable physical barrier to pathogenic microorganisms.

C

stimulating the production of antibodies against pathogenic microorganisms.

D

mobilising the cells of the third line of defence against pathogenic microorganisms.

Reveal Answer
A

synthesising toxins that kill pathogenic microorganisms.

Correct Answer

Beneficial microorganisms can produce antimicrobial compounds or toxins that directly inhibit or kill pathogenic microorganisms, thereby protecting the plant.

B

providing a permeable physical barrier to pathogenic microorganisms.

A permeable barrier would allow substances, including pathogens, to pass through, which would not provide effective physical protection.

C

stimulating the production of antibodies against pathogenic microorganisms.

Plants do not possess an adaptive immune system and therefore cannot produce antibodies.

D

mobilising the cells of the third line of defence against pathogenic microorganisms.

The third line of defence refers to the adaptive immune system (involving B and T cells), which is present in vertebrates but absent in plants.

Q13
2023
NESA
1 mark
Q13
1 mark

Australian native plants can be infected by fungal and viral pathogens.

Which of the following is an active plant response to infection by pathogens?

A

Phagocytosis

B

Programmed cell death

C

Formation of powdery spots

D

Development of small stomata

Reveal Answer
A

Phagocytosis

Phagocytosis is an immune response found in animals, not plants. Plant cells have rigid cell walls that prevent them from engulfing pathogens.

B

Programmed cell death

Correct Answer

Programmed cell death, also known as the hypersensitive response, is an active defense mechanism where plants intentionally kill their own cells at the infection site to deprive the pathogen of nutrients and prevent its spread.

C

Formation of powdery spots

The formation of powdery spots is a symptom of a fungal infection (such as powdery mildew), rather than an active defense response initiated by the plant.

D

Development of small stomata

The development of small stomata is a structural adaptation, often related to environmental conditions like drought, rather than an active, induced immune response to a pathogen infection.

Q38
2023
SCSA
20 marks
Q38

All animals produce nitrogenous waste, which must be excreted.

Q38a
10 marks

Distinguish between how bony fish and land vertebrates excrete nitrogenous waste.

Reveal Answer

Bony fish mainly excrete ammonia, often via their gills. Ammonia is a by-product of metabolism and requires little to no energy to produce. Although it is toxic, fish can continuously excrete ammonia and do not need to store it because they live surrounded by water in an aquatic environment. However, some marine fish excrete urea due to the need to conserve freshwater.

In contrast, land vertebrates excrete either urea or uric acid, depending on the vertebrate, typically via their kidneys. In these animals, ammonia is converted to urea or uric acid, and this conversion takes energy. Urea and uric acid are less toxic than ammonia, and so can be stored for longer. Furthermore, urea and uric acid need less water to expel, which reduces water needs and is more suitable for land where water is limited. The excretion of uric acid requires less water than urea.

Marking Criteria

Bony fish

DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 5 of):

  • States that they (mainly) excrete ammonia or excrete via gills
  • Explains that ammonia is a by-product of metabolism or ammonia requires no/little energy to produce
  • Identifies that ammonia is toxic
  • States that fish can continuously excrete ammonia or do not need to store ammonia • Explains that this is because they live surrounded by water or in an aquatic environment • Notes that some marine fish excrete urea (due to the need to conserve freshwater)
5

Land vertebrates

DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 5 of):

  • States that they excrete either urea or uric acid (depending on vertebrate) or excrete via kidneys
  • Explains that ammonia is converted to urea/uric acid
  • States that this conversion takes energy
  • Explains that urea/uric acid is less toxic than ammonia (and so can be stored for longer)
  • Describes how urea/uric acid needs less water to expel, reduces water needs, or is more suitable for land where water is limited
  • Provides a valid comparison of uric acid and urea, e.g., excretion of uric acid requires less water than urea
5
Q38b
10 marks

Chytridiomycosis is a major disease of amphibians worldwide, threatening many species with extinction.

Discuss the impact that chytridiomycosis has on the host amphibian.

Reveal Answer

The disease disrupts skin function because the pathogen infects and damages the outer layer of skin. Breathing is disrupted because amphibians exchange gas, such as CO2 and O2, through their skin.

Osmoregulation is disrupted because ions are transported across the skin. This disrupted ion balance can cause heart failure. The disease also causes neurological effects such as lethargy. These neurological problems can reduce foraging efficiency and make them susceptible to predators, and the disease is often fatal.

Amphibians are particularly susceptible to skin disease because of the importance of their skin in maintaining homeostasis. The effects vary among individuals of a species and between species.

A lot is still unknown about the impact of this emerging disease, and more research is required, such as why susceptibility varies, the pain involved, or the cytology of the disease. Ultimately, it has a huge impact on amphibian biodiversity and populations, and has caused local extinctions.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 10 of):

  • States that it disrupts skin function or disrupts breathing/respiration and osmoregulation/water exchange
  • Explains that this is because the pathogen infects/damages the skin/outer layer of skin/keratin layer or causes skin lesions/skin discolouration or causes skin to thicken/slough
  • Describes how breathing/respiration is disrupted because amphibians exchange gas or CO2/O2 through the skin
  • Describes how osmoregulation/water exchange is disrupted because ions are transported across the skin or hosts lose ions/sodium/potassium through the skin
  • States that disrupted ion balance can cause heart failure
  • Identifies neurological effects such as lethargy/loss of balance/abnormal posture/loss of flight response
  • Explains that neurological problems can reduce foraging efficiency or make them susceptible to predators
  • States that the disease is often fatal
  • Explains that amphibians are susceptible to skin disease because of the importance of skin in maintaining homeostasis
  • Notes that effects vary among individuals of a species or effects vary between species or some species are more susceptible/resistant/tolerant
  • States that a lot is unknown about the impact/emerging disease/more research is required (e.g., why susceptibility varies/pain/cytology of disease)
  • Describes the huge impact on amphibian biodiversity/populations or that it has caused local extinctions
10
Q38
2025
SCSA
20 marks
Q38

During the 2024 Olympic Games in Paris, the cleanliness of the River Seine was of concern. High levels of the bacteria Escherichia coli (E. coli) were detected in the river, presenting potential health risks for the athletes competing in the triathlon and open-water swimming events. Several athletes were treated for E. coli infections.

Q38a
6 marks

Contrast three features of bacteria and viruses.

Reveal Answer

Answers could include:

  • Bacteria are unicellular and living, whereas viruses are non-living.
  • Most bacteria are non-pathogenic, but all viruses are pathogenic.
  • Bacteria contain DNA or DNA plasmids, whereas viruses contain DNA or RNA.
  • Furthermore, bacteria are surrounded by a cell membrane or cell wall, whereas viruses are surrounded by a protein coat.
  • Bacteria replicate independently, while viruses replicate within a host cell.
  • Finally, bacteria are visible under a light microscope, whereas viruses are too small to be seen under a light microscope.
Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Any 3 of the following (2 marks each)

  • Bacteria are unicellular and living, whereas viruses are non-living.
  • Most bacteria are non-pathogenic, but all viruses are pathogenic.
  • Bacteria contain DNA or DNA plasmids, whereas viruses contain DNA or RNA.
  • Furthermore, bacteria are surrounded by a cell membrane or cell wall, whereas viruses are surrounded by a protein coat.
  • Bacteria replicate independently, while viruses replicate within a host cell.
  • Finally, bacteria are visible under a light microscope, whereas viruses are too small to be seen under a light microscope.
6
Q38b
10 marks

In addition to severe nausea, the unwell swimmers started feeling cold, shivering uncontrollably and were asking for blankets, despite the outside temperatures being warm.

Name and outline the physiological responses the swimmers' bodies were having to the infection.

Reveal Answer

The physiological response is a fever.

During a fever, pyrogens are released, and the hypothalamus resets the internal thermostat to a higher temperature. This causes shivering of skeletal muscles and vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels, so body temperature will increase. This helps to inhibit the growth or reproduction of pathogens, and macrophage activity is enhanced, which increases phagocytosis. Eventually the fever will break at the crisis point, causing sweating and vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels as the thermostat is reset to normal.

Marking Criteria

Name of physiological response

DescriptorMarks

Identifies the physiological response as a fever

1

Outline the physiological response

DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 9 of): States that pyrogens are released; Describes that the hypothalamus resets the internal thermostat to a higher temperature; Identifies shivering of skeletal muscles; Identifies vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels; States that body temperature will increase; Explains that this inhibits the growth/reproduction of pathogens; Explains that macrophage activity is enhanced/increases phagocytosis; States that eventually the fever will break/reach a crisis point; Identifies that this causes sweating; Identifies vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels; States that the thermostat is reset to normal

9
Q38c
4 marks

After swimming in the River Seine, Australian athletes were prescribed antibiotics to prevent an E. coli infection.

Antibiotics can be classified into two groups based on their mode of action. Name these two groups and outline how they fight bacterial infections.

Reveal Answer

Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria by changing the structure of the cell wall or cell membrane, or by disrupting an essential enzyme.

Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit growth or prevent reproduction by disrupting protein synthesis.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Identifies bactericidal antibiotics

1

Explains that bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria by changing the structure of the cell wall/cell membrane/disrupting an essential enzyme

1

Identifies bacteriostatic antibiotics

1

Explains that bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit growth/prevent reproduction by disrupting protein synthesis

1
Q35
2024
SCSA
16 marks
Q35

Mary Mallon was an asymptomatic carrier of the Salmonella typhi bacteria who caused several outbreaks of typhoid fever in the early 1900s. She became known as 'Typhoid Mary' and the story is a famous example of disease transmission and the need for public health measures.

Mary worked as a cook in New York homes, with many people developing typhoid fever while she was employed. She was never sick with the disease herself but was tested and identified as an asymptomatic carrier of the disease. Individuals become infected with typhoid fever from the ingestion of the Salmonella typhi bacteria. It is believed Mary was responsible for as many as 122 cases of the disease.

Q35d

Bacteria can be treated with either antibiotics or a vaccine.

Q35a
1 mark

Given the evidence outlined above, identify the most likely mode of transmission for the typhoid fever pathogen.

Reveal Answer

Ingestion of contaminated food or drink.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Identifies the ingestion of contaminated food or drink

1
Q35b
3 marks

Identify the location of the most important external body defence mechanism in preventing the spread of Salmonella typhi and outline two ways in which it prevents pathogens entering the internal environment.

Reveal Answer

The stomach.

Defences include (for example): vomiting to expel bacteria, a high acidic environment in the stomach to kill bacteria.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Identifies the stomach, digestive tract, or mouth

1

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • vomiting to expel bacteria
  • high acidic environment in stomach to kill bacteria
  • mucous lining of mouth/digestive tract to trap bacteria
  • lysozyme enzymes in saliva to destroy bacteria
  • beneficial gut bacteria to compete with bacteria
  • constant flushing of materials/peristalsis to prevent stagnation
  • antimicrobial peptides/immunoglobulins found in tract to eliminate bacteria
2
Q35c (i)
2 marks

List two ways in which a fever can help the body fight an invading pathogen.

Reveal Answer

It can inhibit pathogen growth; stimulate tissue repair; enhance white blood cell function; enhance the presentation of antigens to macrophages; and increase the production of antibodies.

(any 2).

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • inhibits pathogen growth/replication/reproduction
  • stimulates tissue repair/increases rate of chemical reactions
  • enhances white blood cell function
  • enhances presentation of antigens to macrophages; increases the production of antibodies
2
Q35c (ii)
4 marks

Explain the physiological mechanisms that produce a fever.

Reveal Answer

Pyrogens are produced, causing the hypothalamus to increase the body's set point temperature. The body generates heat through shivering and decreases heat loss from the skin through vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

States that pyrogens or interleukin-1 are produced

1

Explains that the hypothalamus increases the body's set point temperature

1

Describes that the body generates heat through shivering

1

Describes that the body decreases heat loss from the skin or causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin

1
Q35d (i)
2 marks

Describe the key difference between when a person should be treated with antibiotics and when they should be treated with a vaccine.

Reveal Answer

Antibiotics are taken after a person is already infected, whereas vaccines are administered before infection.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

States that antibiotics are taken after a person is already infected

1

States that vaccines are administered before infection

1
Q35d (ii)
4 marks

Present two separate arguments for whether antibiotics and/or a vaccine is the best method of treating a population exposed to, or at risk of, exposure to a disease such as typhoid fever.

Reveal Answer

Vaccines create memory cells while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines provide long-term immunity and protection.

Additionally, vaccines establish herd immunity while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines help protect the population and those who cannot be vaccinated.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

2 marks for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • vaccines create memory cells while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines provide long-term immunity/protection
  • vaccines establish herd immunity while antibiotics don't, therefore vaccines help protect the population/protect those who cannot be vaccinated
  • vaccines reduce severe forms of illness while antibiotics can't, therefore vaccines can reduce complications/likelihood of deaths
  • vaccines require fewer repeat treatments than antibiotics, therefore vaccines are more cost effective
  • antibiotics can treat infected people where a vaccine can't, therefore an antibiotic is the only thing that can help the people who are ill
  • antibiotics can quickly treat illness where it takes months/years for a vaccine to protect a population, therefore an antibiotic can reduce disease spread more quickly
  • antibiotics can be broad spectrum, while a vaccine must be specific, therefore many different antibiotics might work/one specific vaccine must be developed for the disease
4
Q5
2025
VCAA
6 marks
Q5

The bacterium Neisseria meningitidis causes meningococcal disease. N. meningitidis is contagious and transmitted between people via secretions of the nose and throat.

Q5a
2 marks

State two roles of neutrophils in an immune response to N. meningitidis.

Reveal Answer
Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (up to 2 marks). Acceptable roles of neutrophils in an immune response to N. meningitidis include:

  • migration to the site of infection
  • release of cytokines to attract other immune cells
  • phagocytosis of bacterium
  • release of toxins/defensins that are toxic to bacterium
2
Q5b
4 marks

Contrast how the adaptive immune system responds to an extracellular pathogen, like N. meningitidis, and an intracellular pathogen, like the influenza virus.

Reveal Answer

  • Immune system utilises the humoral response to respond to extracellular pathogens whereas the cell-mediated response responds to intracellular pathogens.
  • Humoral response results in the production of plasma cells to produce antibodies whereas the cell-mediated response produces cytotoxic T cells.
  • Antibodies make it easier for the immune system to recognise and destroy pathogens via opsonisation whereas cytotoxic T cells induce apoptosis in virally infected cells.
  • Cell-mediated response produces T memory cells whereas humoral response produces B memory cells.
Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (up to 4 marks). Acceptable contrasts between how the adaptive immune system responds to an extracellular pathogen and an intracellular pathogen include:

  • the type of immunity involved in each response differs (humoral vs cell-mediated)
  • the type of cells involved in each response differs (plasma B cells vs cytotoxic T cells)
  • the molecules and mechanisms involved in targeting each type of pathogen are different (antibodies agglutinate/neutralise/opsonise vs cytotoxic granules induce death)
  • the type of memory cells involved in each response is different (B memory cells vs T memory cells)
4
Q31
2020
SCSA
20 marks
Q31

The pathogen that causes jarrah dieback is a type of protist.

Q31b

In order to prevent the spread of jarrah dieback, vehicles are banned from driving on some tracks when the soil is wet.

Q31a (i)
2 marks

List two structural features of protists that are not found in bacteria.

Reveal Answer

Protists are eukaryotes and membrane-bound organelles.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • States that protists are eukaryotes or have a nucleus
  • Identifies that protists have membrane-bound organelles or mitochondria
  • States that the cell walls of protists are made of cellulose (not peptidoglycan)
2
Q31a (ii)
2 marks

List two structural features of protists that are not found in fungi.

Reveal Answer

Protists are usually unicellular and often have flagella.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • States that protists are (usually) unicellular
  • Identifies that protists (often) have flagella (except in Chytrid zoospores) or cilia
  • States that the cell walls of protists (when present) are made of cellulose (not chitin)
2
Q31b
4 marks

Explain how this can prevent the spread of jarrah dieback.

Reveal Answer

The disease is spread from plant to plant by spores, which are more active when it is wet. Vehicles pick up more contaminated soil when it is wet, therefore the risk of transmission is greater when the soil is wet. Furthermore, vehicles can spread the disease over a large area.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Identifies that the disease is spread (from plant to plant) by spores/zoospores

1

States that spores/zoospores are more active when it is wet

1

Explains that vehicles pick up more (contaminated) soil when it is wet, therefore the risk of transmission/spread is greater when the soil is wet

1

Describes that vehicles can spread the disease/spores/zoospores over a large area

1
Q31c (i)
2 marks

Describe how the tuberculosis pathogen is transmitted to a new host.

Reveal Answer

The pathogen is airborne and a new host inhales the pathogen.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

States that the pathogen is in the air/airborne OR affected individuals breathe out the pathogen/droplet

1

States that a new host breathes in/inhales the pathogen

1
Q31c (ii)
2 marks

Describe the impact that the tuberculosis pathogen has on the host.

Reveal Answer

The pathogen infects the lungs and causes coughing.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 2 of):

  • Identifies that it infects the lungs/respiratory system
  • States that it causes coughing/lung irritation/breathing problems/tuberculosis
  • Describes that it sometimes does not cause symptoms OR takes time for symptoms to develop OR can infect the brain/nervous system/tissue other than the lungs
2
Q31d
4 marks

Explain how vaccination helps to control the spread of tuberculosis.

Reveal Answer

Vaccination introduces a weakenedversion of a pathogen into the body, which stimulates the production of antibodies. Vaccinated individuals become immune. The higher the proportion of the population that is immune, the greater the protection.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 4 of):

  • Describes that vaccination introduces a weakened/harmless version of a pathogen into the body
  • States that this stimulates the production of antibodies/stimulates an immune response
  • Identifies that vaccinated individuals become immune OR do not catch the disease
  • Explains that the higher the proportion of the population that is immune, the greater the protection OR the converse
  • Explains that this is because infected individuals do not/rarely come into contact with susceptible individuals OR the converse
  • States that herd immunity/high immunity protects susceptible individuals
4
Q31e
4 marks

When travellers enter Australia from overseas, they are required to declare all plant and animal matter that they have brought with them. Explain why.

Reveal Answer

This is biosecurity measure that protects the agricultural industry. It stops the introduction of exotic pests found in other countries but not in Australia. Plant and animal matter found to be infected will either be treated with pesticides or insecticides, or destroyed.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

1 mark for each correct point (any 4 of):

  • Identifies the action as a quarantine/biosecurity measure
  • States that it protects the agricultural industry/the environment OR stops the spread of disease
  • Describes that it stops the introduction of exotic pests/diseases/weeds found in other countries (but not in Australia)
  • Explains that plant and animal matter/declared items may carry pests/diseases
  • States that plant and animal matter found to be infected will either be treated with pesticides/insecticides OR destroyed
4
Q39
2020
SCSA
20 marks
Q39

A man arrived home feeling unwell. His partner took him to the doctor when he started suffering a fever, sweats and chills. The patient was given an antibiotic to take every day for the following 10 days. The doctor stressed the importance of completing the course of antibiotics even when he started to feel better.

Q39a
8 marks

Describe the physiological mechanisms that cause fever.

Reveal Answer

The hypothalamus increases the thermostat setting of the body, making the person feel cold. Pyrogens are released, which are produced by white cells or pathogens. Muscles begin to shiver and blood vessels constrict, and both processes help to drive up body temperature. A macrophage engulfs the pathogen and is stimulated to release cytokines, which enhance the pyrogens.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 8 marks:

  • States that the hypothalamus increases the thermostat setting of the body (person feels cold)
  • States that pyrogens are released
  • Explains that pyrogens are produced by white cells or pathogens
  • States that muscles begin to shiver
  • States that blood vessels constrict
  • Explains that both shivering and vasoconstriction help to drive up body temperature
  • States that a macrophage engulfs the pathogen
  • States that the macrophage is stimulated to release interleukins or cytokines
  • Explains that interleukins or cytokines enhance the pyrogens
8
Q39b
8 marks

Explain how different antibiotics can be used to treat infections.

Reveal Answer

Antibiotics target disease-causing bacteria. They can be broad spectrum, affecting a wide range of bacteria, or narrow spectrum, effective only against specific types of bacteria. Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit the growth of bacteria by interfering with protein synthesis. Bactericidal antibiotics destroy bacterial pathogens by targeting cell walls, cell membranes, or metabolic pathways found inside bacteria.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 8 marks:

  • States that antibiotics target disease-causing bacteria
  • Explains that they can be broad spectrum or affect a wide range of bacteria
  • Explains that they can be narrow spectrum or effective only against specific types of bacteria
  • States that bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit the growth of bacteria
  • Explains that they inhibit growth by interfering with protein synthesis
  • States that bactericidal antibiotics destroy bacterial pathogens
  • Explains that they destroy pathogens by targeting cell walls or cell membranes
  • Explains that they target metabolic pathways or the action of enzymes found inside bacteria
8
Q39c
4 marks

Explain why the doctor stressed that the full course of antibiotics needed to be taken.

Reveal Answer

Antibiotics gradually reduce the numbers of bacteria, but there will still be a small population of bacteria that remain. If antibiotics are then stopped, the bacteria that persist will increase in number as surviving bacteria reproduce. This means reinfection occurs.

Completing the course also helps to reduce the likelihood of resistance developing.

Marking Criteria
DescriptorMarks

Award 1 mark for each of the following points, up to a maximum of 4 marks:

  • States that antibiotics gradually reduce the numbers of bacteria
  • Explains that there will still be a small population of bacteria that remain
  • Explains that if antibiotics are stopped, the persisting bacteria will increase in number or surviving bacteria will reproduce
  • States that reinfection occurs or the person becomes sick again
  • States that completing the course reduces the likelihood of resistance developing
4

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